[2026] Pass Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity-Practitioner Exam Updated 227 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 74
Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)
- A. They are isolated from the internal network.
- B. They are located in the internal network.
- C. They can be accessed by traffic from the internet.
- D. They can expose servers in the internal network to attacks.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a portion of an enterprise network that sits behind a firewall but outside of or segmented from the internal network1. The DMZ typically hosts public services, such as web, mail, and domain servers, that can be accessed by traffic from the internet1. However, the DMZ is isolated from the internal network by another firewall or security gateway, which prevents unauthorized access to the private network2. Therefore, statements A and D are true about servers in a DMZ, while statements B and C are false. Reference:
What is a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)? | F5
Demilitarized Zones (DMZs) - Secure Network Architecture - CompTIA ...
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?
- A. O 5G -
- B. DevOps
- C. O Multicloud
- D. Micro-segmentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Micro-segmentation is a VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case that reduces your environment's attack surface. Micro-segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller segments, each with its own security policies and controls. This helps to isolate and protect workloads from lateral movement and unauthorized access, as well as to enforce granular trust zones and application dependencies. Micro-segmentation can be applied to virtualized data centers, private clouds, and public clouds, using software-defined solutions such as VMware NSX, Cisco ACI, and Azure Virtual WAN. Reference: Micro-Segmentation - Palo Alto Networks, VM-Series Deployment Guide - Palo Alto Networks, VM-Series on VMware NSX - Palo Alto Networks, VM-Series on Cisco ACI - Palo Alto Networks, VM-Series on Azure Virtual WAN - Palo Alto Networks
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?
- A. Active monitoring
- B. Archiving
- C. Correlating
- D. sandboxing
Answer: A
Explanation:
A User Entity Behavior Analysis (UEBA) tool performs active monitoring by continuously analyzing the behavior of users and entities to detect anomalies that may indicate insider threats, compromised accounts, or malicious activity. It uses machine learning and analytics to identify unusual patterns in real time.
NEW QUESTION # 77
What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)
- A. Convincing an employee that they are also an employee
- B. Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call
- C. Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive
- D. Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Social engineering attacks manipulate human trust to gain unauthorized access or information. Convincing an employee that an attacker is also an employee builds rapport, lowering defenses for information disclosure or credential sharing. Similarly, impersonating a company representative and requesting unrelated personal data exploits authority bias to deceive victims. These tactics exploit psychological vulnerabilities rather than technical flaws and are prevalent initial steps in multi-stage attacks. Palo Alto Networks highlights the importance of training, multi-factor authentication, and behavior-based threat detection to mitigate social engineering risks effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 78
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses
Subnet 2: 25 host addresses
Subnet 3: 120 host addresses
- A. 192.168.6.168/30
- B. 192.168.6.160/29
- C. 192.168.6.128/27
- D. 192.168.6.0/25
Answer: D
Explanation:
To maximize the use of a network address, the administrator should use the subnet that can accommodate the required number of hosts with the least amount of wasted IP addresses. The subnet mask determines how many bits are used for the network portion and the host portion of the IP address. The more bits are used for the network portion, the more subnets can be created, but the fewer hosts can be assigned to each subnet. The formula to calculate the number of hosts per subnet is
2(32-n)-2
, where
n
is the number of bits in the network portion of the subnet mask. For example, a /30 subnet mask has 30 bits in the network portion, so the number of hosts per subnet is
2(32-30)-2=2
A /25 subnet mask has 25 bits in the network portion, so the number of hosts per subnet is
2(32-25)-2=126
The subnet 192.168.6.0/25 can accommodate 126 hosts, which is enough for the network with 120 hosts. The subnet 192.168.6.168/30 can only accommodate 2 hosts, which is not enough. The subnet 192.168.6.160/29 can accommodate 6 hosts, which is also not enough. The subnet 192.168.6.128/27 can accommodate 30 hosts, which is enough, but it wastes more IP addresses than the /25 subnet. Therefore, the best option is B. 192.168.6.0/25. Reference:
Getting Started: Layer 3 Subinterfaces - Palo Alto Networks Knowledge Base DotW: Multiple IP Addresses on an Interface - Palo Alto Networks Knowledge Base Configure NAT - Palo Alto Networks | TechDocs
NEW QUESTION # 79
A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?
- A. PaaS
- B. CaaS
- C. SaaS
- D. IaaS
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the NIST definition of cloud computing, Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud service model that provides "the capability to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications" 1. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage, and deployed applications; and possibly limited control of select networking components (e.g., host firewalls) 1. In other words, IaaS gives the user access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking, as stated in the question. Reference: 1: SP 800-145, The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing | CSRC 2
NEW QUESTION # 80
What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?
- A. Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.
- B. Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.
- C. Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.
- D. Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a system that collects, analyzes, and correlates security logs from multiple sources, such as endpoints, firewalls, servers, etc. A SIEM can provide a centralized and comprehensive view of the security posture of an organization, as well as detect and respond to threats. Configuring endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints, as it reduces the network bandwidth and storage requirements, simplifies the log management process, and enables faster and more effective security analysis. Leveraging an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) solution to request the logs from endpoints is not recommended, as it may cause performance issues on the endpoints, increase the network traffic, and create a dependency on the EDR solution. Connecting to the endpoints remotely and downloading the logs is not recommended, as it is a manual and time-consuming process, prone to errors and inconsistencies, and may expose the endpoints to unauthorized access. Building a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints is not recommended, as it requires technical skills and maintenance, may not be compatible with different endpoint platforms, and may introduce security risks if the script is compromised or misconfigured. Reference:
Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET) - Palo Alto Networks Fundamentals of Security Operations Center (SOC)
10 Palo Alto Networks PCCET Exam Practice Questions - CBT Nuggets
NEW QUESTION # 81
How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?
- A. Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility
- B. Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility
- C. Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility
- D. Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Prisma SaaS connects directly to the applications themselves, therefore providing continuous silent monitoring of the risks within the sanctioned SaaS applications, with detailed visibility that is not possible with traditional security solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)
- A. It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.
- B. It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.
- C. It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.
- D. It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
SSL/TLS encrypts and authenticates web-based communication to ensure secure data transmission over networks. It ensures privacy by encrypting the data exchanged between a client and a server, protecting it from interception or tampering. It doesn't handle user input like passwords directly.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.
- A. It cannot identify command-and-control traffic
- B. It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted
- C. It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted
- D. It cannot monitor all potential network ports
Answer: B
Explanation:
A perimeter-based network security strategy relies on firewalls, routers, and other devices to create a boundary between the internal network and the external network. This strategy assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted, and that any threat comes from outside the network. However, this assumption is flawed, as internal endpoints can also be compromised by malware, phishing, insider attacks, or other methods. Once an attacker gains access to an internal endpoint, they can use it to move laterally within the network, bypassing the perimeter defenses. Therefore, a perimeter-based network security strategy is not sufficient to protect an organization's endpoint systems, and a more comprehensive approach, such as Zero Trust, is needed. Reference:
Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET) Traditional perimeter-based network defense is obsolete-transform to a Zero Trust model What is Network Perimeter Security? Definition and Components | Acalvio
NEW QUESTION # 84
Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)
- A. Application
- B. Network
- C. Transport
- D. Session
- E. Presentation
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Layer 4 of the TCP/IP model is the transport layer, which is responsible for providing reliable and efficient data transmission between hosts. The transport layer can use different protocols, such as TCP or UDP, depending on the requirements of the application. The transport layer also performs functions such as segmentation, acknowledgement, flow control, and error recovery. 1 The transport layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to three layers of the OSI model: the transport layer, the session layer, and the presentation layer. The session layer of the OSI model manages the establishment, maintenance, and termination of sessions between applications. The session layer also provides services such as synchronization, dialogue control, and security. The presentation layer of the OSI model handles the representation, encoding, and formatting of data for the application layer. The presentation layer also performs functions such as compression, encryption, and translation. 23 Reference:
* 1: TCP/IP Model - GeeksforGeeks
* 2: Transport Layer | Layer 4 | The OSI-Model
* 3: Transport Layer Explanation - Layer 4 of the OSI Model
NEW QUESTION # 85
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?
- A. requires the use of two or more cloud service providers
- B. requires the use of only one cloud service provider
- C. enables on-demand network services
- D. defines any network service
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the NIST definition, cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction1. One of the essential characteristics of cloud computing is on-demand self-service, which means that users can request and obtain computing resources as needed, without requiring human intervention from the service provider2. On-demand network services are an example of this characteristic, as they allow users to access network resources such as bandwidth, routing, firewall, or load balancing, on demand and in a scalable manner3. Reference:
The NIST definition of cloud computing
SP 800-145, The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing | CSRC
On-Demand Network Services - Palo Alto Networks
NEW QUESTION # 86
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?
- A. Security
- B. Network
- C. Management
- D. Cloud
Answer: A
Explanation:
A SASE solution converges networking and security services into one unified, cloud-delivered solution (see Figure 3-12) that includes the following:
* Networking
Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)
Virtual private networks (VPNs)
Zero Trust network access (ZTNA)
Quality of Service (QoS)
* Security
Firewall as a service (FWaaS)
Domain Name System (DNS) security
Threat prevention
Secure web gateway (SWG)
Data loss prevention (DLP)
Cloud access security broker (CASB)
NEW QUESTION # 87
What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)
- A. Less security
- B. Manual reconfiguration
- C. Single point of failure
- D. Requirement for additional computational resources
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually-configured routing entry, rather than information from dynamic routing traffic 1. Static routing has some advantages, such as simplicity, low overhead, and full control, but it also has some disadvantages, such as:
* Manual reconfiguration: Static routes require manual effort to configure and maintain. This can be time-consuming and error-prone, especially in large networks with many routes. If there is a change in the network topology or a link failure, the static routes need to be updated manually by the network administrator 23.
* Single point of failure: Static routing is not fault tolerant. This means that if the path used by the static route stops working, the traffic will not be rerouted automatically. The network will be unreachable until the failure is repaired or the static route is changed manually. Dynamic routing, on the other hand, can adapt to network changes and find alternative paths 23.
NEW QUESTION # 88
When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)
- A. remove the infected file's extension
- B. quarantine the infected file
- C. delete the infected file
- D. alert system administrators
- E. decrypt the infected file using base64
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Signature-based antivirus software is a type of security software that uses signatures to identify malware. Signatures are bits of code that are unique to a specific piece of malware. When signature-based antivirus software detects a piece of malware, it compares the signature to its database of known signatures12. If a match is found, the software can do three things to provide protection:
Alert system administrators: The software can notify the system administrators or the users about the malware detection, and provide information such as the name, type, location, and severity of the malware. This can help the administrators or the users to take appropriate actions to prevent further damage or infection3.
Quarantine the infected file: The software can isolate the infected file from the rest of the system, and prevent it from accessing or modifying any other files or processes. This can help to contain the malware and limit its impact on the system4.
Delete the infected file: The software can remove the infected file from the system, and prevent it from running or spreading. This can help to eliminate the malware and restore the system to a clean state4.
:
What is a signature-based antivirus? - Info Exchange
What is a Signature and How Can I detect it? - Sophos
How Does Heuristic Analysis Antivirus Software Work?
What Is Signature-based Malware Detection? | RiskXchange
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?
- A. Reconnaissance
- B. Denial of service
- C. Smishing
- D. Advanced malware
Answer: D
Explanation:
Advanced malware is designed to evade detection and persist within a system, often using stealthy techniques to spread laterally across multiple hosts in a network without triggering alerts, making it especially dangerous and difficult to remove.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?
- A. Docker
- B. Host-based
- C. Serverless
- D. Kubernetes
Answer: B
Explanation:
A host-based architecture uses virtual machines (VMs) to run workloads on a shared host, commonly found in public cloud environments. Each VM operates independently with its own OS, making this model suitable for traditional and isolated application deployments.
NEW QUESTION # 91
What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)
- A. Detecting and correlating anomalies
- B. Unifying cloud provider services
- C. Assessing severity levels
- D. Identifying misconfigurations
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Assessing severity levels - UEBA data helps prioritize incidents by evaluating the risk and severity based on user and entity behavior.
Detecting and correlating anomalies - UEBA continuously analyzes activity to identify abnormal behavior and correlate anomalies that may indicate insider threats or compromised accounts.
NEW QUESTION # 92
At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?
- A. Transport
- B. Physical
- C. Data Link
- D. Network
Answer: D
Explanation:
Routing protocols are defined at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model. The network layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks using logical addresses (IP addresses). Routing protocols are used to exchange routing information between routers and to determine the best path for data delivery. Some examples of routing protocols are BGP, OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP. Palo Alto Networks devices support advanced routing features using the Advanced Routing Engine1. Reference: Advanced Routing - Palo Alto Networks | TechDocs, What Is Layer 7? - Palo Alto Networks, How to Configure Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world's most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?
- A. Prisma SAAS
- B. Cortex XDR
- C. WildFire
- D. Cortex XSOAR
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cortex XSOAR enhances Security Operations Center (SOC) efficiency with the world's most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security. Cortex XSOAR unifies case management, automation, real-time collaboration, and native threat intel management in the industry's first extended security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) offering.
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
- A. Lateral movement
- B. Account discovery
- C. Resource development
- D. Credential access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Account discovery is a technique in the MITRE ATT&CK framework under the Discovery tactic. It involves adversaries attempting to identify user accounts on a system or network.
Credential access, lateral movement, and resource development are tactics - high-level objectives an attacker is trying to achieve.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?
- A. Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center
- B. MITRE
- C. Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance
- D. Department of Homeland Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
MITRE is a not-for-profit organization that operates research and development centers sponsored by the federal government. MITRE maintains the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) catalog, which is a dictionary of common names for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities. CVE's common identifiers, called CVE Identifiers, make it easier to share data across separate network security databases and tools, and provide a baseline for evaluating the coverage of an organization's security tools12. Reference:
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
CVE - CVE
NEW QUESTION # 96
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