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NEW QUESTION 33
Which of the following is NOT a technical control?
- A. Monitoring for physical intrusion
- B. Identification and authentication methods
- C. Password and resource management
- D. Intrusion Detection Systems
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
It is considered to be a 'Physical Control'
There are three broad categories of access control: administrative, technical, and physical. Each category has different access control mechanisms that can be carried out manually or automatically. All of these access control mechanisms should work in concert with each other to protect an infrastructure and its data.
Each category of access control has several components that fall within it, a partial list is shown here. Not all controls fall into a single category, many of the controls will be in two or more categories. Below you have an example with backups where it is in all three categories:
Administrative Controls
Policy and procedures
- A backup policy would be in place
Personnel controls
Supervisory structure
Security-awareness training
Testing
Physical Controls
Network segregation
Perimeter security
Computer controls
Work area separation
Data backups (actual storage of the media, i:e Offsite Storage Facility) Cabling
Technical Controls
System access
Network architecture
Network access
Encryption and protocols
Control zone
Auditing
Backup (Actual software doing the backups)
The following answers are incorrect :
Password and resource management is considered to be a logical or technical control.
Identification and authentication methods is considered to be a logical or technical control.
Intrusion Detection Systems is considered to be a logical or technical control.
Reference : Shon Harris , AIO v3 , Chapter - 4 : Access Control , Page : 180 - 185
NEW QUESTION 34
Which of the following is a cryptographic protocol and infrastructure developed to send encrypted credit card numbers over the Internet?
- A. Secure Shell (SSH-2)
- B. Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)
- C. MONDEX
- D. Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol (S-HTTP)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
SET was developed by a consortium including Visa and MasterCard.
Source: Harris, Shon, CISSP All In One Exam Guide, pages 668-669.
Mondex is a smart card electronic cash system owned by MasterCard.
SSH-2 is a secure, efficient, and portable version of SSH (Secure Shell) which is a secure replacement for telnet.
Secure HTTP is a secure message-oriented communications protocol designed for use in conjunction with HTTP. It is designed to coexist with HTTP's messaging model and to be easily integrated with HTTP applications.
NEW QUESTION 35
Which Network Address Translation (NAT) is the most convenient and secure solution?
- A. Port Address Translation
- B. Static Address Translation
- C. Dedicated Address Translation
- D. Hiding Network Address Translation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Static network address translation offers the most flexibility, but it is not normally practical given the shortage of IP version 4 addresses. Hiding network address translation is was an interim step in the development of network address translation technology, and is seldom used because port address translation offers additional features above and beyond those present in hiding network address translation while maintaining the same basic design and engineering considerations. PAT is often the most convenient and secure solution.
Source: WACK, John et al., NIST Special publication 800-41, Guidelines on Firewalls and Firewall Policy, January 2002 (page 18).
NEW QUESTION 36
Which of the following algorithms is used today for encryption in PGP?
- A. Blowfish
- B. IDEA
- C. RSA
- D. RC5
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Cryptography
Explanation/Reference:
The Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) email encryption system was developed by Phil Zimmerman. For encrypting messages, it actually uses AES with up to 256-bit keys, CAST, TripleDES, IDEA and Twofish. RSA is also used in PGP, but only for symmetric key exchange and for digital signatures, but not for encryption.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (pages 154, 169).
More info on PGP can be found on their site at http://www.pgp.com/display.php?pageID=29.
NEW QUESTION 37
Why would anomaly detection IDSs often generate a large number of false positives?
- A. Because they are application-based are more subject to attacks.
- B. Because normal patterns of user and system behavior can vary wildly.
- C. Because they can only identify correctly attacks they already know about.
- D. Because they can't identify abnormal behavior.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Unfortunately, anomaly detectors and the Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) based on them often produce a large number of false alarms, as normal patterns of user and system behavior can vary wildly. Being only able to identify correctly attacks they already know about is a characteristic of misuse detection (signature-based) IDSs. Application-based IDSs are a special subset of host-based IDSs that analyze the events transpiring within a software application. They are more vulnerable to attacks than host-based IDSs. Not being able to identify abnormal behavior would not cause false positives, since they are not identified.
Source: DUPUIS, Cl?ment, Access Control Systems and Methodology CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, march 2002 (page 92).
NEW QUESTION 38
Which security model introduces access to objects only through programs?
- A. The information flow model
- B. The Biba model
- C. The Bell-LaPadula model
- D. The Clark-Wilson model
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Clark-Wilson model, the subject no longer has direct access to objects
but instead must access them through programs (well -formed transactions).
The Clark-Wilson integrity model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an
integrity policy for a computing system.
The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity.
Information integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to
either error or malicious intent. An integrity policy describes how the data items in the
system should be kept valid from one state of the system to the next and specifies the
capabilities of various principals in the system. The model defines enforcement rules and
certification rules.
Clark-Wilson is more clearly applicable to business and industry processes in which the
integrity of the information content is paramount at any level of classification.
Integrity goals of Clark-Wilson model:
Prevent unauthorized users from making modification (Only this one is addressed by the
Biba model).
Separation of duties prevents authorized users from making improper modifications.
Well formed transactions: maintain internal and external consistency i.e. it is a series of
operations that are carried out to transfer the data from one consistent state to the other.
The following are incorrect answers:
The Biba model is incorrect. The Biba model is concerned with integrity and controls
access to objects based on a comparison of the security level of the subject to that of the
object.
The Bell-LaPdaula model is incorrect. The Bell-LaPaula model is concerned with
confidentiality and controls access to objects based on a comparison of the clearence level
of the subject to the classification level of the object.
The information flow model is incorrect. The information flow model uses a lattice where
objects are labelled with security classes and information can flow either upward or at the
same level. It is similar in framework to the Bell-LaPadula model.
References:
ISC2 Official Study Guide, Pages 325 - 327 AIO3, pp. 284 - 287 AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 338 - 342) AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 341 - 344) Wikipedia at: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clark-Wilson_model
NEW QUESTION 39
What assesses potential loss that could be caused by a disaster?
- A. The Risk Assessment (RA)
- B. The Business Assessment (BA)
- C. The Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
- D. The Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Business Assessment is divided into two components. Risk Assessment (RA) and Business Impact Analysis (BIA). Risk Assessment is designed to evaluate existing exposures from the organization's environment, whereas the BIA assesses potential loss that could be caused by a disaster. The Business Continuity Plan's goal is to reduce the risk of financial loss by improving the ability to recover and restore operations efficiently and effectively.
Source: BARNES, James C. & ROTHSTEIN, Philip J., A Guide to Business Continuity Planning, John Wiley & Sons, 2001 (page 57). And: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 276).
NEW QUESTION 40
While there are many different models for IT system life cycle most contain five unique phases. Which of the following would be the first phase?
- A. Implementation
- B. Operation / Maintenance
- C. Initiation
- D. Disposal
- E. Development
Answer: C
Explanation:
The order of implementation is: initiation, development, implementation, operation/maintenance, and disposal.
NEW QUESTION 41
Which range defines "well known ports?"
- A. 1024-49151
- B. 0-1023
- C. 0-1024
- D. 1-1024
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 42
Which of the following access control techniques best gives the security officers the ability to specify and enforce enterprise-specific security policies in a way that maps naturally to
an organization's structure?
- A. Access control lists
- B. Role-based access control
- C. Non-mandatory access control
- D. Discretionary access control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Role-based access control (RBAC) gives the security officers the ability to specify and enforce enterprise-specific security policies in a way that maps naturally to an organization's structure. Each user is assigned one or more roles, and each role is assigned one or more privileges that are given to users in that role. An access control list (ACL) is a table that tells a system which access rights each user has to a particular system object. With discretionary access control, administration is decentralized and owners of resources control other users' access. Non-mandatory access control is not a defined access control technique. Source: ANDRESS, Mandy, Exam Cram CISSP, Coriolis, 2001, Chapter 2: Access Control Systems and Methodology (page 9).
NEW QUESTION 43
Related to information security, availability is the opposite of which of the following?
- A. distribution
- B. destruction
- C. delegation
- D. documentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
Availability is the opposite of "destruction."
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 59.
NEW QUESTION 44
The Orange Book states that "Hardware and software features shall be provided that can be used to periodically validate the correct operation of the on-site hardware and firmware elements of the TCB
[Trusted Computing Base]." This statement is the formal requirement for:
- A. System Integrity.
- B. Design Verification.
- C. Security Testing.
- D. System Architecture Specification.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
This is a requirement starting as low as C1 within the TCSEC rating.
The Orange book requires the following for System Integrity Hardware and/or software features shall be provided that can be used to periodically validate the correct operation of the on-site hardware and firmware elements of the TCB.
NOTE FROM CLEMENT:
This is a question that confuses a lot of people because most people take for granted that the orange book with its associated Bell LaPadula model has nothing to do with integrity. However you have to be careful about the context in which the word integrity is being used. You can have Data Integrity and you can have System Integrity which are two completely different things.
Yes, the Orange Book does not specifically address the Integrity requirements, however it has to run on top of systems that must meet some integrity requirements.
This is part of what they call operational assurance which is defined as a level of confidence of a trusted system's architecture and implementation that enforces the system's security policy. It includes:
System architecture
Covert channel analysis
System integrity
Trusted recovery
DATA INTEGRITY
Data Integrity is very different from System Integrity. When you have integrity of the data, there are three goals:
1. Prevent authorized users from making unauthorized modifications
2. Preven unauthorized users from making modifications
3. Maintaining internal and external consistancy of the data
Bell LaPadula which is based on the Orange Book address does not address Integrity, it addresses only Confidentiality.
Biba address only the first goal of integrity.
Clark-Wilson addresses the three goals of integrity.
In the case of this question, there is a system integrity requirement within the TCB. As mentioned above here is an extract of the requirements: Hardware and/or software features shall be provided that can be used to periodically validate the correct operation of the on-site hardware and firmware elements of the TCB.
The following answers are incorrect:
Security Testing. Is incorrect because Security Testing has no set of requirements in the Orange book.
Design Verification. Is incorrect because the Orange book's requirements for Design Verification include: A formal model of the security policy must be clearly identified and documented, including a mathematical proof that the model is consistent with its axioms and is sufficient to support the security policy.
System Architecture Specification. Is incorrect because there are no requirements for System Architecture Specification in the Orange book.
The following reference(s) were used for this question:
Trusted Computer Security Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC), DoD 5200.28-STD, page 15, 18, 25, 31, 40, 50.
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Security Architecture and Design, Page 392-397, for users with the Kindle Version see Kindle Locations 28504-28505.
and
DOD TCSEC - http://www.cerberussystems.com/INFOSEC/stds/d520028.htm
NEW QUESTION 45
Good security is built on which of the following concept?
- A. The Concept of defense in depth
- B. The Concept of Defensive Controls
- C. The concept of a pass-through device that only allows certain traffic in and out
- D. The Concept of Preventative controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
This the best of the four answers as a defense that depends on multiple layers is superior to one where all protection is embedded in a single layer (e.g., a firewall). Defense in depth would include all categories of controls.
The Following answers are incorrect:
"Concept of a pass through device that only allows certain traffic in and out" is incorrect. This is one definition of a firewall which can be a component of a defense in depth strategy in combination with other measures.
"Concept of preventative controls" is incorrect. This is a component of a defense in depth strategy but the core concept is that there must be multiple layers of defenses.
"Concept of defensive controls" is incorrect. This is a component of a defense in depth strategy but the core concept is that there must be multiple layers of defenses.
References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Defense_in_depth_(computing)
http://www.nsa.gov/snac/support/defenseindepth.pdf
NEW QUESTION 46
Which of the following would be best suited to oversee the development of an information security policy?
- A. Security administrators
- B. System Administrators
- C. Security Officers
- D. End User
Answer: C
Explanation:
The security officer would be the best person to oversea the development of such policies.
Security officers and their teams have typically been charged with the responsibility of creating the security policies. The policies must be written and communicated appropriately to ensure that they can be understood by the end users. Policies that are poorly written, or written at too high of an education level (common industry practice is to focus the content for general users at the sixth- to eighth-grade reading level), will not be understood.
Implementing security policies and the items that support them shows due care by the company and its management staff. Informing employees of what is expected of them and the consequences of noncompliance can come down to a liability issue.
While security officers may be responsible for the development of the security policies, the effort should be collaborative to ensure that the business issues are addressed.
The security officers will get better corporate support by including other areas in policy development. This helps build buy-in by these areas as they take on a greater ownership of the final product. Consider including areas such as HR, legal, compliance, various IT areas and specific business area representatives who represent critical business units.
When policies are developed solely within the IT department and then distributed without business input, they are likely to miss important business considerations. Once policy documents have been created, the basis for ensuring compliance is established. Depending on the organization, additional documentation may be necessary to support policy. This support may come in the form of additional controls described in standards, baselines, or procedures to help personnel with compliance. An important step after documentation is to make the most current version of the documents readily accessible to those who are expected to follow them. Many organizations place the documents on their intranets or in shared file folders to facilitate their accessibility. Such placement of these documents plus checklists, forms, and sample documents can make awareness more effective.
For your exam you should know the information below:
End User - The end user is responsible for protecting information assets on a daily basis through adherence to the security policies that have been communicated.
Executive Management/Senior Management - Executive management maintains the overall responsibility for protection of the information assets. The business operations are dependent upon information being available, accurate, and protected from individuals without a need to know.
Security Officer - The security officer directs, coordinates, plans, and organizes information security activities throughout the organization. The security officer works with many different individuals, such as executive management, management of the business units, technical staff, business partners, auditors, and third parties such as vendors. The security officer and his or her team are responsible for the design, implementation, management, and review of the organization's security policies, standards, procedures, baselines, and guidelines.
Information Systems Security Professional- Drafting of security policies, standards and supporting guidelines, procedures, and baselines is coordinated through these individuals. Guidance is provided for technical security issues, and emerging threats are considered for the adoption of new policies. Activities such as interpretation of government regulations and industry trends and analysis of vendor solutions to include in the security architecture that advances the security of the organization are performed in this role.
Data/Information/Business/System Owners - A business executive or manager is typically responsible for an information asset. These are the individuals that assign the appropriate classification to information assets. They ensure that the business information is protected with appropriate controls. Periodically, the information asset owners need to review the classification and access rights associated with information assets. The owners, or their delegates, may be required to approve access to the information. Owners also need to determine the criticality, sensitivity, retention, backups, and safeguards for the information. Owners or their delegates are responsible for understanding the risks that exist with regards to the information that they control.
Data/Information Custodian/Steward - A data custodian is an individual or function that takes care of the information on behalf of the owner. These individuals ensure that the information is available to the end users and is backed up to enable recovery in the event of data loss or corruption. Information may be stored in files, databases, or systems whose technical infrastructure must be managed, by systems administrators. This group administers access rights to the information assets.
Information Systems Auditor- IT auditors determine whether users, owners, custodians, systems, and networks are in compliance with the security policies, procedures, standards, baselines, designs, architectures, management direction, and other requirements placed on systems. The auditors provide independent assurance to the management on the appropriateness of the security controls. The auditor examines the information systems and determines whether they are designed, configured, implemented, operated, and managed in a way ensuring that the organizational objectives are being achieved. The auditors provide top company management with an independent view of the controls and their effectiveness.
Business Continuity Planner - Business continuity planners develop contingency plans to prepare for any occurrence that could have the ability to impact the company's objectives negatively. Threats may include earthquakes, tornadoes, hurricanes, blackouts, changes in the economic/political climate, terrorist activities, fire, or other major actions potentially causing significant harm. The business continuity planner ensures that business processes can continue through the disaster and coordinates those activities with the business areas and information technology personnel responsible for disaster recovery.
Information Systems/ Technology Professionals- These personnel are responsible for designing security controls into information systems, testing the controls, and implementing the systems in production environments through agreed upon operating policies and procedures. The information systems professionals work with the business owners and the security professionals to ensure that the designed solution provides security controls commensurate with the acceptable criticality, sensitivity, and availability requirements of the application.
Security Administrator - A security administrator manages the user access request process and ensures that privileges are provided to those individuals who have been authorized for access by application/system/data owners. This individual has elevated privileges and creates and deletes accounts and access permissions. The security administrator also terminates access privileges when individuals leave their jobs or transfer between company divisions. The security administrator maintains records of access request approvals and produces reports of access rights for the auditor during testing in an access controls audit to demonstrate compliance with the policies.
Network/Systems Administrator - A systems administrator (sysadmin/netadmin) configures network and server hardware and the operating systems to ensure that the information can be available and accessible. The administrator maintains the computing infrastructure using tools and utilities such as patch management and software distribution mechanisms to install updates and test patches on organization computers. The administrator tests and implements system upgrades to ensure the continued reliability of the servers and network devices. The administrator provides vulnerability management through either commercial off the shelf (COTS) and/or non-COTS solutions to test the computing environment and mitigate vulnerabilities appropriately.
Physical Security - The individuals assigned to the physical security role establish relationships with external law enforcement, such as the local police agencies, state police, or the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to assist in investigations. Physical security personnel manage the installation, maintenance, and ongoing operation of the closed circuit television (CCTV) surveillance systems, burglar alarm systems, and card reader access control systems. Guards are placed where necessary as a deterrent to unauthorized access and to provide safety for the company employees. Physical security personnel interface with systems security, human resources, facilities, and legal and business areas to ensure that the practices are integrated.
Security Analyst - The security analyst role works at a higher, more strategic level than the previously described roles and helps develop policies, standards, and guidelines, as well as set various baselines. Whereas the previous roles are "in the weeds" and focus on pieces and parts of the security program, a security analyst helps define the security program elements and follows through to ensure the elements are being carried out and practiced properly. This person works more at a design level than at an implementation level.
Administrative Assistants/Secretaries - This role can be very important to information security; in many companies of smaller size, this may be the individual who greets visitors, signs packages in and out, recognizes individuals who desire to enter the offices, and serves as the phone screener for executives. These individuals may be subject to social engineering attacks, whereby the potential intruder attempts to solicit confidential information that may be used for a subsequent attack. Social engineers prey on the goodwill of the helpful individual to gain entry. A properly trained assistant will minimize the risk of divulging useful company information or of providing unauthorized entry.
Help Desk Administrator - As the name implies, the help desk is there to field questions from users that report system problems. Problems may include poor response time, potential virus infections, unauthorized access, inability to access system resources, or questions on the use of a program. The help desk is also often where the first indications of security issues and incidents will be seen. A help desk individual would contact the computer security incident response team (CIRT) when a situation meets the criteria developed by the team. The help desk resets passwords, resynchronizes/reinitializes tokens and smart cards, and resolves other problems with access control.
Supervisor - The supervisor role, also called user manager, is ultimately responsible for all user activity and any assets created and owned by these users. For example, suppose Kathy is the supervisor of ten employees. Her responsibilities would include ensuring that these employees understand their responsibilities with respect to security; making sure the employees' account information is up-to-date; and informing the security administrator when an employee is fired, suspended, or transferred. Any change that pertains to an employee's role within the company usually affects what access rights they should and should not have, so the user manager must inform the security administrator of these changes immediately.
Change Control Analyst Since the only thing that is constant is change, someone must make sure changes happen securely. The change control analyst is responsible for approving or rejecting requests to make changes to the network, systems, or software. This role must make certain that the change will not introduce any vulnerabilities, that it has been properly tested, and that it is properly rolled out. The change control analyst needs to understand how various changes can affect security, interoperability, performance, and productivity. Or, a company can choose to just roll out the change and see what happens.
The following answers are incorrect:
Systems Administrator - A systems administrator (sysadmin/netadmin) configures network and server hardware and the operating systems to ensure that the information can be available and accessible. The administrator maintains the computing infrastructure using tools and utilities such as patch management and software distribution mechanisms to install updates and test patches on organization computers. The administrator tests and implements system upgrades to ensure the continued reliability of the servers and network devices. The administrator provides vulnerability management through either commercial off the shelf (COTS) and/or non-COTS solutions to test the computing environment and mitigate vulnerabilities appropriately.
End User - The end user is responsible for protecting information assets on a daily basis through adherence to the security policies that have been communicated.
Security Administrator - A security administrator manages the user access request process and ensures that privileges are provided to those individuals who have been authorized for access by application/system/data owners. This individual has elevated privileges and creates and deletes accounts and access permissions. The security administrator also terminates access privileges when individuals leave their jobs or transfer between company divisions. The security administrator maintains records of access request approvals and produces reports of access rights for the auditor during testing in an access controls audit to demonstrate compliance with the policies.
Following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: CISA review manual 2014 Page number 109 Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 108). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 47
Which of the following classes is the first level (lower) defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as mandatory protection?
- A. B
- B. D
- C. A
- D. C
Answer: A
Explanation:
B level is the first Mandatory Access Control Level.
First published in 1983 and updated in 1985, the TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, was a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic standards for the implementation of security protections in computing systems. Primarily intended to help the DoD find products that met those basic standards, TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information on military and government systems. As such, it was strongly focused on enforcing confidentiality with no focus on other aspects of security such as integrity or availability. Although it has since been superseded by the common criteria, it influenced the development of other product evaluation criteria, and some of its basic approach and terminology continues to be used.
Reference used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 17920-17926). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.
and
THE source for all TCSEC "level" questions:
http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/secpubs/rainbow/std001.txt (paragraph 3 for this one)
NEW QUESTION 48
What is the MOST critical piece to disaster recovery and continuity planning?
- A. Staff training
- B. Management support
- C. Availability of backup information processing facilities
- D. Security policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The keyword is ' MOST CRITICAL ' and the correct answer is ' Management Support ' as the management must be convinced of its necessity and that's why a business case must be made. The decision of how a company should recover from any disaster is purely a business decision and should be treated as so.
The other answers are incorrect because :
Security policy is incorrect as it is not the MOST CRITICAL piece.
Availability of backup information processing facilities is incorrect as this comes once the organization has BCP Plans in place and for a BCP Plan , management support must be there.
Staff training comes after the plans are in place with the support from management.
Reference : Shon Harris , AIO v3 , Chapter-9: Business Continuity Planning , Page : 697.
NEW QUESTION 49
......
Exam Difficulty
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